That the Jews were what? Not homophobic? Do you have any evidence for that?Except they were
Can't comment on European pagan religions since I don't know that much about them and there probably aren't too many written sources to either confirm or deny the presence of homophobic religious beliefs (although there clearly is homophobia present in European pagan societies directed towards homosexual bottoms in particular, such as in the case of the Scandinavian Germanic pagans where the term which designated such an individual in Old Norse was considered one of the worst insults for a man.)That only the people of the Abrahamic religions were homophobic.
Vendidad said:
Grasping at straws. It's proof of a non-Abrahamic faith that espouses homophobic beliefs. (And the text itself is much older by the way: "the text of the Vendīdād was redacted after Avestan ceased to be a live medium of communication, yet was still understood in its general contours. If, as is generally held, the Zoroastrianized verses of the Yašts were composed in decent Avestan approximately in the 5th century B.C.E., then the Vendīdād will have been composed in the Arsacid period, if not even under the early (?) Sasanians.")The Vendidad was transcribed in 1607.
The Manusmriti is a highly controversial text and its authenticity is questioned. Even Mahatma Gandhi says so. Even if it were 100% true, it was written somewhere between 200 BCE and 200 CE, perhaps even later, so it's not before the Jews.
Not really. The Jews just invented homophobia in order to "prove" their chosen-people status and distance from pagans, which then spread like wildfire throughout the Christian-dominated (and later Islamic) world due to Saint Paul. This is not antisemitic. When the Vendidad was transcribed, Jews didn't have anything to do with that, homophobia was a widespread ideology and it was in their best interest as essentially a fringe cult to espouse some mainstream views in order to not be branded heretics or whatever and violently persecuted. Can you imagine a religion espousing "gay rights" in 1607 smack-dab in the middle of Iran? Madness.
It depends on when these were added. If they were in the original text and that text was written in 200 BCE (unlikely), then I don't think it had much to do with the Jews, but I'm not an expert in Jewish-Hindu relations in 200 BCE so I wouldn't know. However, given how there's really no evidence to suggest any malicious hatred towards the gays before the Jews, I'm ready to believe the homophobia was added much later, especially since everyone uses the same source for it and that source was a later commentary by a third party.If I understood correctly, many verses might have been added to the original document. But here's the thing: you stated that all homophobia was first introduced Abrahamic religions. But even if the verses dealing with homossexuality were not in the original text, do you really think they were a product of christian or jewish influence? That seems very unlikely.
You misunderstand my point. I am arguing that the original intent of the Jews was to distance themselves from the pagans due to their beliefs of being the chosen people, and one consequence of that is the denouncement of gay sex because it's an easy political tool. What I'm also arguing is that early Jews and early Christians were very politically savvy and knew how to present their cases. Saint Paul is particularly shrewd and clever, but I don't think he gave much thought to this particular issue because it doesn't concern the vast majority of people, so he defaulted to Mosaic law. Given how only he comments on this in the entire New Testament, and it's only very brief mentions, I'm inclined to believe this is true. It is very well known Saint Paul made up the canon as he went along in order to fit the situation he currently found himself in. You don't become a dominant religion by not having political goals. When homophobia started to spread, other religions and secular communities started to dabble in it as well because that's how cultural osmosis works. I'm not arguing this wasn't a genuine belief of the Zoroastrians by the time the Vendidad was transcribed. Even if it wasn't a genuine belief, they had every political reason to write it in. Now that homophobia is widely seen as unacceptable and political suicide in the West, you can clearly notice how the political landscape shapes this notion. I don't see a reason to believe this wasn't the case throughout history as well.The Zoroastrians *were* being violently persecuted for not being of the dominant religion in the Islamic world. It didn't matter whether they were homophobic or not (and the threat of 'gay rights' from a Muslim perspective would imply Zoroastrian secular authority which did not exist). And you have a very distorted view of religion in which the evolution of a particular theological tradition is solely a matter of pragmatism on the part of their adherents. Might be mindboggling to you, but premodern people actually took their faith seriously. People do not adopt new dogmas that they view as heretical (which is what you are implying with that sort of theological opportunism), but rather their general outlook changes over time and that which is dogmatically sound naturally develops to mirror their contemporary beliefs. And unlike dominant faiths, the Zoroastrians had no ruling secular counterparts to impose upon them from above a heretical Zoroastrian dogma. If a Zoroastrian cleric found himself preaching heresy, he would've simply been condemned by the community of which he was a part of and replaced by an orthodox cleric.
So all you have are just a bunch of unfounded assumptions about the Zoroastrians adopting a homophobic view due to the influence of Abrahamic faiths (on opportunistic rather than ideological grounds no less) rather than it being a homespun development (which you likewise unfoundedly assume to occur after the fall of Zoroastrian secular authority and the consolidation of the new Islamic one).
Really, as far as I'm concerned, your line of reasoning is no different from that of an antisemite who yapps on about 'Judeo-Bolshevism' as if the prevalence (real or imagined) of a particular group among those that share a certain belief (whether homophobia or 'Judeo-Bolshevism' and the nowadays popular blanket term of 'Cultural Marxism') somehow essentializes that belief onto them. And if individuals of another group share that belief, then it certainly must be a product of foreign influence from those 'evil Jews' rather than something that they've arrived at by themselves independently. Only noticeable difference being that you take a more moderate stance in your antisemitism, of it being a reaction to the quintessentially Jewish belief of homophobia rather than the more staunchly antisemitic yapping of modern antisemites about Jewish subversion when it comes to various ideological stances. But then again, plenty of conventional antisemites also share the stance that Jewish beliefs are a product of their 'degenerate' nature rather than a matter of perfidiousness.
Well, I'll only restate my main issue with this line of reasoning, namely that you seem to put too much of an emphasis on the pragmatic element in dogma. Were there particular religious beliefs that had developed out of the cynicism of a faith's clerics? Sure, but that tends to be the exception rather than the norm. And it usually occurs when the clergy stand to benefit from it (either by increasing their privileges within the community or by doing the whims of the secular leaders which stand above them).You misunderstand my point. I am arguing that the original intent of the Jews was to distance themselves from the pagans due to their beliefs of being the chosen people, and one consequence of that is the denouncement of gay sex because it's an easy political tool.
As far as we know. And faith isn't meant to be rational. We can understand why some beliefs came to be as rationalizations for scientifically unexplainable natural phenomena (spooky sounds in the sky -> thunder god with his heavenly anvil) or for preexisting social stances (animal looks [insert negative adjective like ugly or unclean] -> that species is affiliated with some evil supernatural being). I've already told you that there is a scientifically measurable disgust reaction that heterosexuals tend to have when witnessing homosexual acts (including kissing or what have you), so homophobia is a theological rationalization of that as far as I'm concerned.especially since no other religion or culture at the time had such burning hatred towards the gays.
There's no reason, but religion doesn't function on reason. Something is icky, so you might very well turn it into a metaphysical negative. Just like menstruation might be innately disgusting to men and thus Orthodoxy finds some lofty theological justification in order to disallow women from going to church when it's that time of the month. Homosexuality is icky, so clearly those people must be 'unclean'. And from there to ascribe evil to that which is unclean is but a step in a system of beliefs that thrives on dichotomies.And even if it's inherent, that's no reason for discrimination.