TheGreatGodPan said:
Incentives matter in all situations involving intentional/purposive action.
That's just not true without further assumptions.
For instance it's trivially incorrect when the goal is either guaranteed to happen, or guaranteed not to happen, irrespective of intentional/purposive action.
Clearly that isn't the case for mating. However,pretty much everything is in the grey area between the case where incentive doesn't matter at all (e.g. when outcome can't be influenced by action, or action can't be influenced by desire), and the case where it matters completely (e.g. trivially, when your goal is to have the intention - concrete cases are unlikely since other factors nearly always have a bearing).
For any usual case you can be fairly sure that incentives (or desires - not the same thing) will have an impact. Whether that's a 1% impact or a 99% impact will be highly dependent on the situation.
Do you know of any situation of the type I described in which incentives do not matter?
First, if your argument is very specific to the type of situation you described, you ought to point out what specifically about that situation justifies the argument.
Situations where incentives (of any type) don't matter are probably confined to cases where the actors are unaware of the incentives, or the actors' actions have no bearing on the goal. These are both common enough, though the first case clearly makes no sense in this context.
However, we were talking about one particular incentive to mate. Removing that does not remove all incentives.
It's simple to imagine many situations where the natural impulse to mate might not be the most important factor. E.g. where having children is very important (e.g. economically/religiously/culturally...); where not mating means you get burned as a witch etc.
Whether any such situations were prevalent enough to make a big difference is far from certain. Assuming that the existence of such situations is impossible is illogical.
but mating involves not only that but also requires desire at a very base level to physically carry out the act.
Not really - what it requires is a physical state. Whether that occurs through desire, or any other form of stimulation is not too relevant. I don't think anyone suggests that homosexuals are incapable of mating.
...the heterosexual has a clear advantage in creating offspring.
Only if there aren't other strong incentives to mate.
Also, sexual dimorphism ...degree of polygyny... if anything social pressure has acted against that.
Then that'd be more helpful to the monogamous homosexual mating for non-desire based reasons, wouldn't it?
Did you read my link on group selection?
Not yet. Will do at some point.
Also, as I mentioned, in Africa (where the bulk of human evolution took place), we find the brother of the mother rather than the father investing in children
Sure - that makes sense - but it's going to be highly dependent on the structure of the society. Isn't homosexuality supposed to be rarer now in such areas? Couldn't that indicate a higher degree of selection against it due to less societal pressure towards monogamy?
There are some traits that have emerged relatively recently (lactose tolerance, brain volume), but those were surprises to many scientists.
Sure, but it doesn't make sense to argue about the evolutionary effects of homosexuality without considering when it first appeared. (by "thousands", I meant thousands rather than many millions - I didn't mean to exclude amounts of the order of say 50000 years).
At one time it was thought that the younger generation benefits the older generation when the latter is past their physical prime, but it turns out that the benefit ALWAYS flows from the old fogies to the young whippersnappers.
Perhaps that makes sense on an individual level, but it completely ignores the (vital) higher level considerations: i.e. if your family/tribe grows more slowly than others around it, it will have less control, less power, less land... and be highly vulnerable.
This is why higher level (i.e. not directly genetic) evolutionary considerations are important. It makes no difference whatsoever if you have a tribe of 50 wonderfully capable, developed, genetically amazing members, if that tribe gets wiped out by another with 500 members.
Given that we're discussing males (who'd almost certainly be killed in such conflict), tribal dynamics are a vital consideration. To get power in tribal situations, you need as many members as possible (and to take as many resources as possible to support this).
Tribes who have a stable, low population, are very likely to end up dead.
I don't have much solid fact to back up the above thinking - beyond "it stands to reason" -, but I'm pretty sure it's right.
I'm absolutely sure that ignoring such higher level considerations is a mistake - regardless of the validity of my conclusions.
It does involve biology. We've disected brains, and those of homosexuals are different
Yes, of course.
I'm just saying that not all evolution is directly biological. It's perfectly reasonable to look at the evolution of tribes / tribal systems, without necessarily looking at individual human biology. Long term evolution of tribal systems will be highly influenced by the genetic evolution of their members, but that's not true over say 1000 years.
Since tribal structure has the ability to change much faster than human genetics, tribes / tribal systems can evolve much more quickly. This is still evolution in exactly the same sense as individual human evolution (i.e. survival of the fittest etc.). It just doesn't operate through a genetic mechanism (in the short term).
Where this is relevant to homosexuality is through the impact (if any) of homosexuals on their tribes. If homosexuality pushes a tribe in some direction whereby that tribe becomes fitter / less fit, that's a big deal for the tribe. By extension, it's a big deal for any genes affecting (or effecting
) homosexuality.
I'm not necessarily suggesting that homosexuality has any such effect - but it could have. Ignoring the possibility is a mistake.
Once again I'm going to recommend looking at
the link on group selection.
Ok - I've read it.
One thing to consider is that it there doesn't need to be group selection for homosexuality. All that's necessary is that there's some type of selection towards wanting to breed regardless of desire (making homosexuality largely evolutionarily irrelevant in a mainly monogamous society).
In some cases, this might simply be a by-product of intelligence: tribes who know they are threatened by other tribes will tend to want to increase in number of members. This is just individual selection through game theoretic considerations.
Of course it also might be the case that individual homosexuals, or groups with homosexuals tend to do better. Importantly, this needn't be causative - it could be another effect of some gene(s) which govern(s) homosexuality.
For instance perhaps homosexuals are smarter (i.e. intelliegent - not necessarily well-dressed). Perhaps they happen to be less vulnerable to some disease etc. etc.
Alone these probably wouldn't be huge factors - but if combined with some very good reason to breed, such factors could be significant.
Again, the above is not what I consider to be fact. It's just a set of possibilities which ought to be considered.
Are you arguing in favor of a genetic explanation or against a pathogenic explanation?
Neither - I'm arguing in favour of a logical, scientific approach to the issue. I think I'd be more surprised if the pathogenic explanation turned out to be true, but I freely admit the genetic explanation has difficulties.
My problem with Greg's argument wasn't his proposed solution, or his highlighting of problems with genetic answers. Rather it's his readiness to jump to convenient conclusions, and state things as fact/obvious, instead of taking a more reasonable "It seems likely that... it's possible that... we might hypothesize..." approach.
For instance, again, the 80% statistic on reproductive fitness of homosexuality in the modern USA, is entirely anecdotal. Using it as a guide to make educated guesses is one thing. Presenting it as part of the basis for an argument is quite another.
The taste for lemonade would be the result of a taste for the components that go into it (like sugar and lemons).
Sure, but you're ignoring the possibility that combinations introduce more complicated issues.
There's a difference between eating a large spoonful of sugar, chasing it down with a bite of lemon and a glass of (fizzy?) water, and having a glass of lemonade.
Without specific detailed study of lemonade drinking, all you have are hunches based on more general results.
Without answering the following, can you honestly say you've solved the Lemonade Controversy:
Why do some people like it fizzy? Why do some people like it cold? What's the relationship between liking it fizzy/cold/sharp/sweet? Does the glass matter? Does the colour matter? Are there cultural effects? Is lemonade simply cool? Is ice important? What are the climatic effects? Economic considerations? Do people drink lemonade to live, or live to drink lemonade? Which of these effects are genetic? Which environmental? Which a combination?
A genetic study of lemonade drinking, is of course impossible though.
I'm just saying that any question of the form "Why do people like X", is usually going to have an extremely complex answer. You can simply identify some important factors (e.g. the energy in sugar, the nutritional value of citrus fruit), but that's not a complete answer.
Perhaps with homosexuality there is one (or a few) simple very important factor(s) (e.g. the pathogen), but there's no compelling reason to expect such a simple answer.
I was thinking while I was writing.
Always a mistake - I avoid it whenever I can.
There are always epigenetic influences and other such things, which is why most genes are described as giving a propensity toward a trait, but identical twins are discordant 80% of the time when one is homosexual, which doesn't even make the trait given the genes "likely" (as in more likely than not).
Sure, but 20% is significantly higher than 4%. [What's the concordance between fraternal (non-identical) twins?]
Such data might imply that genes were one factor of several. It's only a strong case against a simple genetic cause - which I'd be surprised at in any case.
What's the expected error in the classification of homosexuals though? I'm not sure that "Are you gay?" is a question for which an honest answer can be assumed. Also, has account been taken for any skewing of statistics? How is data collected? Isn't it possible that pairs of twins with one gay and one not would be more likely to be willing to contribute to, or interested in such studies?
A gene that gave even a small propensity toward homosexuality we would still (ceteris paribus) usually assume would be selected against and its incidence fall to the level of random mutation.
And if ceteris non paribus? If it had other benefits; if homosexuals had had no other strong incentive to breed...
...But stating that it should logically stop causing harm for that reason is ridiculous...
And not something I did by the way
. I just indicated that it'd be (one of) the most effective ways to evolve. Not that that evolution would be quick, easy, or necessarily happen at all.
It begs the question for the innumerable diseases which keep rapidly evolving because they harm us, many of which have been around in roughly similar form damn near forever.
Not really - some sections of such diseases probably do evolve so as to stop causing harm. It's just (as I mentioned) that not all varieties will do this.
The fact that some proportion might evolve away from causing harm to humans is just not important, since the one's we're interested in are those which continue to cause harm [and of course there's no reason why some pathogen diverging means that either type necessarily becomes less common].
I was probably thinking while I was typing. It occurred to me that dieseases which kill people (either quickly or slowly) have a much greater incentive to evolve away from that behaviour than would any homosexuality-inducing pathogens.
However, it also occurred to me that that didn't make what I'd just said wrong - just mostly irrelevant. It seemed a shame to delete it
.
I'm kind of confused. What is the significant difference? Not admitting in the problem sounds the same as resistance.
Sure, but there's some difference between an evolved protection system [blood-brain barrier], and happening not to be harmed by something.
You wouldn't say that you're "resistant" to air would you? Neither would you say you're "resistant" to nut allergies (presuming you don't have them).
The important difference would be that evolving standard resistance to the threat is not effective in the long term - the pathogen adapts.
If humans evolved so as not to be vulnerable to the effects of the pathogen (e.g. by developing redundancy, so as not to rely solely on the affected area of the brain to fulfill the necessary function), it's very unlikely that it'd simply adapt to cause the same problem - since as you say, there's no reason for it to "want" to cause homosexuality. It'd almost certainly just be a side-effect of its presense.
For pathogens with catastrophic, system wide effects, becoming immune to their effects might not be a reasonable prospect. For a pathogen which affects only one very specific target, in one specific area of the brain, becoming immune to the effects (rather than avoiding the effects through resistance) would be more reasonable.
How reasonable, I'm not sure - it's just a thought.
The same points you are raising would seem to fall on all the diseases that infect the brain at an early point in the development that we evolved the BBB for.
Sure, but the BBB is very useful since it's a general purpose defense.
Do these other diseases also adapt to get around the BBB?
Have they been in the population for (many) thousands of years?
Do they target very specific brain areas?
Do they have as much (or more) of a negative effect on fitness as homosexuality?
If the answers to the above are all positive, then I agree it's reasonable for there to have been no compensation against the effects of a pathogenic cause of homosexuality.
It'd be interesting to know if there are any pathogens for which such compensation has occurred though. Perhaps it's unlikely - perhaps such redundancy only makes sense where there are many possible causes of damage to a system.
Given the lower incidence there is less of a need to explain how it could be so prevalent. Cochran hasn't suggested that his theory would also cover lesbianism, and I'm not going to try to stretch it out to far.
Sure, but the point would be (from a pro-genetic explanation point of view), that if the same set of genes were to be (partially) responsible for homosexuality in both genders, then considering only the fitness of males, doesn't make much sense.
Or, perhaps more to the point (a rather silly point, but still), what if such homosexual genes were not homosexual genes at all, but rather genes which favoured being attracted to men/women?
That way, a women who carried the gene for male homosexuality would instead be much more attracted to men than usual (and we know incentives = breeding
). Therefore the gene would be strongly favoured in women, and thus carried in the population over the long term.
Similarly, any lesbian genes could in fact be genes which favoured strong attraction to females (even in men). Thus men with such genes would be more attracted than usual to females, so the lesbian gene would be selected for in men.
This explains the lower rate of lesbianism compared with male homosexuality too - since men will shag anything that moves in any case, so the extra "lesbian" gene doesn't get them to reproduce much faster.
In any case, this could perfectly reasonably keep such genes in the population over the long term. Unless, of course, reproductive rates aren't randiness reliant - in which case perhaps homosexuals have been reproducing like crazy in any case.